City and Guilds Dental Nursing Block 2 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The ramus is a feature of which bone?
• An anatomical feature found in larger veins that prevents backflow is known as what?
• The signs trembling, cold and clammy skin, irritability or aggression, drowsiness and slurred speech indicate which medical emergency?
• Lichen planus is described as which of the following?
• The temporalis muscle passes beneath which arch?
• Diabetes is defined as?
• If a patient had an angina attack which two drugs can be administered and what dose?
• Which nerve supplies the buccal gingivae along the cheek area, commonly involved in mandibular procedures?
• Which term describes an infection common in childhood causing acute inflammation of the oral soft tissues?
• Involuntary painful contracture of the joint musculature, resulting in the inability to open the mouth fully is a condition called?
• How many bones form the maxilla?
• What is the average eruption age for a permanent adult lower central incisor?
• During extra-oral soft tissue assessment, which item is NOT typically evaluated?
• Which radiographic view provides an extended view of posterior teeth and includes assessment of bone levels and pockets?
• A patient takes salbutamol. Which medical condition is she most likely to have?
• In dental charting, involvement of the area where the roots divide is known as furcation.
• During respiration, approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is present in expired air?
• Which method involves creating physical replicas of the dentition to compare wear over time?
• Which of the following signs would help distinguish hypoglycaemia from other emergencies in a dental setting?
• What is epilepsy?
• The eruption date of a deciduous upper lateral incisor is:
• In a full deciduous dentition, how many premolars are present?
• Which nerve passes through the incisive foramen?
• During choking in a dental setting, a cycle consists of performing how many back slaps and chest thrusts?
• The 5th cranial nerve is the trigeminal nerve and supplies the majority of the oral cavity. A branch of the mandibular division runs from the inner surface of the ramus of the mandible and then over the external oblique ridge to supply the surrounding gingivae. Which of the following is the name of this branch?
• Which deciduous tooth has two roots and five cusps?
• Which mandibular jaw movement produced by the temporomandibular joint is described as occurring when the condyle rotates anteriorly and posteriorly over the surface of the disc itself, which remains static, allowing the mandible to move up and down?
• Erythroplakia is best described as which of the following?
• Which tooth has the longest root?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as able to aid a patient in making an NHS complaint?
• Cranial nerve number designating the facial nerve?
• How many premolars are present in a full permanent dentition?
• During a dental visit, a receptionist becomes frustrated with a patient who cannot speak English well. This demonstrates which type of discrimination?
• Temporary reduction in oxygen delivery to the brain is known as what?
• An increased response to a vitality test indicates what condition?
• What legislation allows patients to access their records?
• For consent to be valid it must be both:
• What is xerostomia?
• Which statement about vitality tests is true?
• Which statement best describes the process by which teeth contact during closure?
• Which cranial nerve supplies all the muscles of facial expression?
• If a patient had an asthma attack what would you administer?
• Which muscle closes the jaw and moves it from side to side?
• Which organ is affected by cirrhosis?
• Which blood vessel delivers oxygenated blood around the body?
• How many molars are present in a full permanent dentition?
• Which piece of legislation excludes health records as a source of information that can be made available on a person's request?
• Xerostomia, poor wound healing and infection are oral manifestations most commonly seen in which systemic disease?
• Which term describes involuntary contraction of jaw muscles that limits mouth opening?
• Who can provide consent for a patient who is too young to consent themselves?
• Erythrocytes cannot divide because they lack which cellular structure?
• A tooth mobility score of III indicates which type of movement?
• Major arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the head and neck are known as:
• Which action is performed by the medial pterygoid muscle?
• The largest healthy acceptable space between the tooth surface and the gingival margin (gingival crevice) is?
• Thinner and less elastic oral mucosa, teeth gradually darkening with colour, skin has less underlying fat and elasticity. These are all signs of what?
• What is herpes labialis?
• Which statement about the inner grid on a paper dental chart is true?
• What is the term for consent that is informed, specific, and given by a parent or guardian if the patient is too young?
• In dental anatomy, how many bones form the face?
• Enamel formation is conducted by which cells?
• A periodontal score of * indicates?
• What term describes the vertical overlap of the upper and lower teeth?
• The head of the mandible's condyle articulates with which bone?
• Erythroplakia is described as which of the following?
• The eruption date of a deciduous upper lateral incisor occurs at about how many months?
• According to NICE guidelines, the longest interval a patient younger than 18 years should be given is:
• What term describes how teeth come together when the jaws close?
• Dyes used in dental checkups are used to detect caries by staining which area?
• What is herpes simplex type 1?
• Which nerve is commonly targeted for numbing the upper teeth in a regional block that supplies the maxillary anterior and premolar teeth?
• Which treatment should be given immediately in suspected anaphylaxis?
• What does the S stand for in DRSABC?
• Which term describes the outer layer of compact bone around the tooth socket?
• Analgesia means which of the following?
• In a pregnant patient with a potentially sinister lesion, which assessment method can aid a speedy diagnosis?
• Which medical emergency may require adrenaline?
• The name of the largest salivary gland is:
• The Department of Health has developed a toolkit with information governance requirements. Information governance toolkit guidance was developed by which department?
• What term describes the area between tooth roots that may show bone loss on charting?
• Where is the insertion point of the temporalis muscle?
• Which statement best describes eruption timing of deciduous upper lateral incisor?
• Cementoblasts are cells that form which dental tissue?
• Leukoplakia is described as a white lesion of the oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off and is nearly always found on which intraoral site?
• Which nerve would need to be anaesthetised to numb the buccal gum of a lower 5?
• Which term best describes the protection of patient information in healthcare?
• What feature prevents the trachea from collapsing during breathing?
• In the adult permanent dentition, how many incisors are present?
• Which extra-oral radiography view would show both jaws in full and their surrounding anatomy?
• What is the ideal overbite for a normal occlusion?
• Odontoblasts produce dentin.
• A '#' symbol on a dental chart denotes which condition?
• Where can the ramus be found?
• Leukoplakia presents as which of the following features?
• The cusp of Carabelli is typically found on which tooth?
• Which statement correctly lists a salivary gland disorder name?
• A commonly occurring infection with Candida albicans, producing white patches that can be wiped off, is called?
• Osteoporosis affects which area of the body?
• Which of the following is not listed as a sign of ageing in the described context?
• Dentine is formed by which cells?
• An 18 year old patient attends for the lower left molar restoring, by preparation for a crown, to anaesthetise the tooth and buccal gingivae which pair of nerves would achieve this?
• An elderly patient attends surgery with a grossly carious upper molar which has an abscess. Although in pain the tooth cannot be extracted at present as the patient has an INR of 5.5, which medication is most likely causing this?
• There are 3 key principles which must be addressed in order to proceed with treatment known as gaining consent. What are these 3 principles?
• Which periodontal structure acts as a shock absorber for teeth during chewing?
• Which nerve passes through the incisive foramen?
• Due to age related changes to oral tissues in a patient over the age of 70, their dental treatment may be different in some aspects from those who are younger. What is this called?
• Which position should a pregnant patient be in when carrying out CPR?
• Halfway up the inner surface of the ramus the nerve supply for the lower teeth and soft tissue enters through which structure?
• For consent to be valid, it must be:
• During extra-oral soft tissue assessment, which item is examined?
• The inner grid on a paper dental chart shows which information?
• Which orthodontic appliance is the most common functional appliance?
• Lichen planus is best described as which of the following?
• Ethyl chloride, warmed gutta-percha and electric testers are all forms of what?
• What is diabetes?
• Epilepsy is defined as?
• Which tooth is described as having three roots and five cusps?
• How many plates of bone is the cranium made up of?
• What is the standard chart for recording patient visits and treatments, and is required for NHS patients?
• Enamel is formed by cells called?
• Which surface of a tooth faces toward the midline?
• An upper deciduous canine usually has how many roots and cusps?
• How many bones, relevant to dentistry, form the face?
• Adams crib pliers, straight hand piece and acrylic bur, measuring ruler and an expansion screw key are all equipment needed for the monitoring and adjustment of:
• When administering basic life support, rescue breaths and chest compressions should be administered in a set ratio. Which is the current correct ratio?
• The structure that attaches a tooth to the socket and helps absorb chewing forces is the...
• At what pH level does enamel demineralisation occur?
• What does a dental panoramic tomograph show?
• Which group of drugs has been linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw?
• White patches that can be wiped off on the mucosa are characteristic of which condition?
• If a patient has cirrhosis, which organ is most likely affected?
• Which statement best describes vitality testing in dentistry?
• Bluish-purple lips indicate?
• The group of muscles responsible for opening the mouth and swallowing actions is known as which?
• In an acute asthma episode in a dental setting, which medication is most appropriate to administer?
• Which deciduous tooth typically has one root and no defined cusps?
• Which item is used to adjust the expansion screw on a removable orthodontic appliance?
• A medical emergency that can occur in a dental surgery is syncope. Which of the following is a lay term for this?
• What is HIV?
• A lower deciduous second molar usually has how many roots and cusps?
• Leukoplakia is best described as which of the following?
• According to the Access to Health Records Act 1990, a dentist must respond to a request within how many days?
• The coronoid process is a feature of which bone?
• What are the main mineral crystals in enamel?
• How many bones form the mandible?
• Cementum is formed by cells called?
• A patient attends surgery for an extraction of the upper right lateral incisor which is palatally placed and periodontally involved. The dentist must anaesthetise which pair of the following nerves?
• Cold sores which reoccur after the initial herpes simplex infection are called?
• Dentine is formed by cells called?
• Which medical emergency may involve administration of adrenaline, oxygen, hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine?
• The head of the condyle articulates with:
• What is the primary cause of enamel erosion in bulimia?
• Erythrocytes are produced in which structure?
• In Palmer's Notation, UR5 corresponds to which tooth category?
• What are dyes used for in check ups?
• Which of the following are salivary gland disorders mentioned in the material?
• Which statement is true about confidentiality in dental practice?
• The dental condition hypodontia is demonstrated by which of the following?
• Which of the following is not a known causative factor for squamous cell carcinoma?
• The surface of a tooth nearest the midline is called the...
• Halitosis is a medical term for which condition?
• Which term refers to the vertical overlap of the incisors when the jaws are closed?
• Which method could aid rapid documentation of a lesion in a pregnant patient but minimize radiation exposure?
• Confidentiality applies to which records?
• When can dentists refuse to release patient information?
• Which tooth may develop the cusp of Carabelli?
• Informed consent is not legally valid unless the dentist informs the patient of what?
• After destroying records, what information must be kept?
• What is the FDI notation for the upper right deciduous second molar?
• The ideal overjet for a normal occlusion is:
• What does the term ptyalism describe?
• An elderly patient with full/full dentures attends the surgery for a routine check-up. She tells you that she has been diagnosed with an iron and vitamin B deficiency by her GP, but she has come in to see you as her tongue is very sore. What condition is she most likely suffering from?
• What occlusion would a patient have if they had a chin which is unduly prominent, caused by the mandible being too far forward relative to the maxilla?
• Which of the following are names of salivary gland disorders?
• Which radiograph would be taken to obtain an extended view of posterior teeth from mid-roots of the maxilla to mid-roots of the mandible, assess periodontal bone levels, and detect true pockets?
• Which form is designated for recording NHS patient visits and treatments?
• Under the Data Protection Act, how many principles exist?
• HIV stands for what?
• How many principles does the Data Protection Act have?
• In the FDI notation system, which tooth has the notation 53?
• A sore tongue in a patient with iron and vitamin B deficiency is most likely:
• The outer layer of compact alveolar bone is called?
• Which of the following usually occurs prior to periodontal disease?
• Which statement correctly describes a typical inclusion in patient records?
• Kaposi's sarcoma is commonly associated with which condition?
• An indicator of Sjögren's syndrome is:
• In Palmers Notation, UR5 refers to which tooth?
• Which statement best describes the effect of bulimia on dental enamel?
• Which salivary gland is commonly associated with mumps infection?
• Osteonecrosis of the jaw has been linked to which class of medications?
• In bulimia, which factor in the mouth is primarily responsible for enamel erosion?
• Dental radiographs are primarily used in oral health assessment and treatment planning for which purpose?
• Which of the following is a requirement as part of the information governance toolkit guidance?
• Which tool among the following is used to measure distances on a removable orthodontic appliance?
• On a BPE probe, graduated marks indicate which measurements?
• What is the recommended action when a patient stops breathing during a dental procedure?
• At what age should a child attend for their first oral health examination?
• Dental practices in England are required to keep dental records for adults for:
• The digestive enzyme found in saliva is called ptyalin; it primarily digests which substance?
• Which legislation allows personal data to be passed to third parties only under the condition of the act?
• In the sequence of safety steps DRSABC, what does the 'S' step stand for?
• How long should records for a child patient be legally kept after they leave the dental surgery?
• The internal carotid artery supplies:
• Which GDC standard is most relevant to attending a basic life support course?
• A patient has just been fitted with a fixed orthodontic appliance, there is excess cement that needs to be removed. Which instrument is most likely to be required?
• Which term describes the study of ageing and its impact on health and social aspects, including dentistry?
• A painless ulcer under the tongue that has not healed for two weeks, with associated leukoplakia, is most indicative of which condition?
• The most common type of functional appliance is called a:
• Leukoplakia is most accurately described as which of the following?
• Tobacco, high alcohol consumption, sunlight, diet and genetics can all be causative factors of which medical condition?
• Which of the following is true about erythroplakia?
• Which muscle brings the mandible forward so the anterior teeth bite tip to tip?
• A lower permanent second molar usually has how many roots and cusps?
• Which items can be included in patient records?
• The GDC standards for the dental team state there are how many core ethical principles of practice?
• The eruption date of a lower permanent first premolar is:
• Leukoplakia is defined as which of the following?
• Enamel is made up of what % of inorganic mineral crystals?
• Which two muscles can be felt on the side of the head and face when the teeth are clenched?
• Which nerve would need to be anaesthetised to numb the upper 5 buccal gum and tooth?
• A patient with an open lip posture and a jaw relationship in which the upper teeth protrude relative to the lowers has which occlusion?
• For anaesthesia near the palatal aspect in an upper incisor region with palatal placement, which nerves are indicated to be anaesthetised?
• The bone forming a tooth socket is called?
• The eruption date of a lower permanent second molar is:
• Earliest stage of periodontal disease?
• Which salivary gland is affected by the viral infection mumps?
• Which nerve is designated by the roman numeral VII?
• Which of the following correctly lists the three main types of blood vessels?
• During respiratory arrest, which action should be carried out first?
• The heart is located in which body cavity?
• Which nerve supplies sensation to the lower teeth and their buccal gingivae through the associated nerve block?
• Which salivary gland is located in the anterior floor of the mouth, above the mylohyoid muscle?
• A dental receptionist receives a call from a husband asking for information about his wife's procedure. Which legislation governs the refusal to disclose?
• What is the cranium?
• BPE stands for what in periodontal assessment?
• Caldicott regulations refer to:
• Which muscle is primarily responsible for closing the jaw?
• Very small multiple ulcers that can occur up to 11 at a time are called?
• Lichen planus is best described as which of the following?
• How many sets of muscles connect the mandible to the skull?
• A patient attends surgery with significant tooth surface loss, the dentist wants to monitor the progression of the tooth wear. Which method of assessment would be most appropriate for this?
• At what age can a patient of sound mind consent to treatment?
• Which muscles raise the jaw?
• The eruption date of a permanent upper canine tooth is:
• An upper first permanent molar usually has how many roots and cusps?
• Vitality tests can help determine whether a tooth is what?
• The eruption date of a deciduous lower first molar is:
• Stensen's duct drains saliva from which gland?
• In Palmer's Notation, UR5 belongs to which dental quadrant?
• Which gland is the largest salivary gland?
• Leukoplakia is best described as which of the following?
• Which duct passes across the surface of the masseter muscle and opens into the buccal sulcus opposite the upper second molar?
• Very small multiple ulcers occurring in groups of up to 11 at a time are best described as which type?
• Which orthodontic item relates to the function of adjusting all metal springs and retractors as necessary?